It seems historically in almost all societies and cultures, premarital sex for women of high standing has been frowned upon. Only in Western societies after the 1960s did it become acceptable and the norm.
Is this statement historically accurate and if so what was the reason for it?
Was it that people married earlier those days or that contraceptives were not available or effective so there was the fear of children being born out of wedlock? Any other reasons why it was looked upon with such evil?
EDIT : It has been stated that this question is too broad, so let me make it more specific in that I am asking only about Western/European society. Why did the taboo exist all the way to the 1960s and then disappear almost completely at that point?