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According to the bible Jesus resurrected at the first day of the week. Nowadays we would call that day Sunday. But the first day of the week is based on the Hebrew calendar. In those days the Jews were colonized by the Roman empire and they used the Julian calendar. The week of the Romans in those days had 8 days and were called from A till H. I don't know what their 'holy day' was or their rest day.

But is it possible in some way to find out how the Hebrew weekdays in the time of Jesus' resurrection correspond with the Roman days?

closed as off-topic by Mark C. Wallace, CGCampbell, Anaryl, Pieter Geerkens, Semaphore Apr 4 '16 at 19:37

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  • "Questions on social sciences other than History are off-topic here, unless they also involve history in some fashion. While ethics, archaeology, etc. are all connected to history, each field has their own experts who are better equipped to answer such questions." – Mark C. Wallace, CGCampbell, Anaryl, Pieter Geerkens, Semaphore
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    Given that the resurrection of Jesus was not a historically documented event, the answer to the question is "no". I'm going to vote to close because this question deals with something other than history. – Mark C. Wallace Apr 3 '16 at 21:30
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    @MarkC.Wallace, the resurrection is conventionally dated to Sunday, April 5, 33 AD (Julian calendar). You don't need to go outside of conventional history to translate this date into the ancient Roman calendar. – Mark Apr 3 '16 at 22:27
  • @Mark: But your rewording makes it a much different question. It's now a simple matter of translating calendar systems, instead of us having to a) accept that Jesus actually existed and was resurrected; b) that if he did and was, that Biblical accounts yield the correct date; and c) that non-Christians (and indeed, most Christians) would know that conventional date. – jamesqf Apr 4 '16 at 4:45
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    @MarkC.Wallace - That is true. However, scholars consider the Crucifixtion of Jesus a near certainty (it was just too damn inconvenient to the movement documenting it to be an invention). Considering all 4 Gospels date the Resurrection at 2 days later, this is quite answerable without having to avow any kind of belief in the Resurrection itself. – T.E.D. Apr 4 '16 at 10:18
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    @T.E.D - Excellent points. I think it would be clearer if the question were written to emphasize those points, rather than require a chain of inference. – Mark C. Wallace Apr 4 '16 at 11:52
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This is actually a subject of much debate. More interestingly, the answer depends on which Gospel account you are reading*.

For the Synoptics, the Last Supper is the key. They report it as a Passover meal, which by definition puts it on 14 Nisan. The crucifixion is (strongly implied at least) the next day, so 15 Nisan.

For John, its Jesus' trial that clues us in. It occurred on the Day of Preparation prior to Passover, placing the crucifixion itself on 14 Nisan. This chronology may have been influenced by a desire in John to equate Jesus to the traditional Passover sacrifice (the Paschal Lamb)2

As for the day of the week, all four Gospels agree it was a few hours before the start of the Sabbath (IOW: a Friday).

1 - Sadly for the literalists, there are rather a lot of inconsistencies between the four different Gospels. Generally a believer has to either ignore the scholoarly research, or dump literalism.

2 - John was the latest of the Gospels written. For historians that makes it the least certain. However, it is easily the most poetic.

  • I don't know if i've formulated my question clear, but I'm looking for a Roman day. I thougt that they wrote the days of the week with a letter from A to H. But perhaps other names also were used by the romans. So it is not in the first place the date but the name of the day. – Marijn Apr 4 '16 at 10:29
  • dies Solis Nonis Aprilibus XXXIII A.D. The 5th of April is The Nones. Sunday is Solis, so... – CGCampbell Apr 4 '16 at 17:53
  • @Marijn: In order to get that we first need the actual date and back-compute. Due the the different week length, there is no other way at all. – Joshua May 7 '18 at 17:24
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You have the wrong idea about Judea. It was not "colonized" by the Romans. There were no Romans in Jerusalem, the location of Jesus' death. Jerusalem did not use the Roman calendar in any way.

The Roman praetor who technically ruled Judea was located in Caesarea, almost 60 miles away, a three-day journey.

Also, remember that in Judea virtually nobody spoke Latin, so from that alone it would not have been practical to adopt Roman customs like their dating system. Judea had only been a satellite of Roman for about 50 years at that time and was largely autonomous, being rule by the Hasmoneans, a native people who spoke Assyrian and used the Babylonian calendar, which was identical to the Hebrew calendar.

Both the Gospels and the Talmud say He was executed on the day-eve of Passover, but the day of the week can vary, so without knowing the exact year it is impossible to say the day of the week, and moreover, even if we knew the exact year, there are number of calendrical uncertainties, such as movable leap days, that would still leave it in doubt.

  • The question wasn't really asking "what was the calendar in use", just "what was the day of week", which would yield the same answer regardless whether or not people at a certain location had heard of the calendar (for example, many dates in antiquity are often translated to the Gregorian calendar). Additionally, it appears the leap years had stabilized well before ~33AD, so there should be no calendrical uncertainties. Wikipedia seems to think that Judea was actually ruled by the romans directly by that point in history, too. – Clockwork-Muse Apr 5 '16 at 4:33
  • I had to explain why the question is not answerable as posed. As for your allegation that there were no "uncertainties", obviously you have not read any of the authorities like Parker or Hopkins or Negebauer. – Tyler Durden Apr 5 '16 at 5:10

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