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The use of language is one of the most conspicuous and diagnostic traits that distinguish Homo sapiens from other species. Unlike writing, spoken language leaves no trace.Can we get a direct method in trying to decipher the origins of language?

closed as off-topic by Tyler Durden, Mark C. Wallace, SJuan76, CGCampbell, knut Apr 28 '16 at 18:35

This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:

  • "Questions on social sciences other than History are off-topic here, unless they also involve history in some fashion. While ethics, archaeology, etc. are all connected to history, each field has their own experts who are better equipped to answer such questions." – Tyler Durden, Mark C. Wallace, SJuan76, CGCampbell, knut
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    By definition this is not a history question, it is an anthropology question. – Tyler Durden Apr 28 '16 at 17:07
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    Although we entertain some anthropology questions here, I think this one is out of scope; the answer is not available through historical sources and methods. Fascinating question, but not, fundamentally a historical question. – Mark C. Wallace Apr 28 '16 at 17:10
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    I think you have the mistaken idea that language is some kind of invention, which it is not. If two children are raised in isolation by mute parents they will begin speaking to each other and will invent a language. The ability to create language is an innate human ability. – Tyler Durden Apr 28 '16 at 17:10
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    Actually, I don't think the study of anthropology has any answer for this either. Its an inherently cross-disciplinary issue, and I'm not sure there ever could be a more appropriate stack for a question on the origin of human language than this one. – T.E.D. Apr 28 '16 at 18:00
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    We have absolutely no proof that other genus homo species didn't talk... – CGCampbell Apr 28 '16 at 18:03