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Having read this article, is it fair to say that women in ancient Egypt had something of legal equality with men? The article seems to generalise between Old and New Kingdom eras, but I would like any supporting or contrary evidence to say if Egyptian women ever did have legal equality with Egyptian men.

I would also like the answer to be contextualised by comparisons with the status of women in neighbouring cultures at the time. For example, Herodotus seemed to take offence to the way women behaved in Egypt, going so far as saying that the Egyptians had "reversed the ordinary practices of mankind"... though he was known to exaggerate sometimes.

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