I read that the Mongol Empire conquered and unified China. My question is... how were the Mongols able to conquer so much when China's population almost certainly was larger during that time period? Was it because of the use of special tactics, technology, or due to other factors?
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history.stackexchange.com/q/30602/16952 – AllInOne Oct 4 '16 at 10:30
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I think the best question of this ilk was What forces/incentives drove the Mongols to conquer.. – T.E.D.♦ Oct 4 '16 at 14:07
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Also, I think this version of the question is phrased way better than either of those. Its really refreshing to see a good succinct question with no preferred answer or agenda. Please ask more like this. – T.E.D.♦ Oct 4 '16 at 14:10
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I think this question isn't a duplicate at all, since it focuses so much on China. If this anon user ever does happen back through, the basic answer (apart from China's disunity and Mongol drive) is that in the premodern era steppe nomads always had an advantage in mobility and ability to concentrate their force. They were badly outnumbered if China could have brought everyone together to fight them, but they couldn't. They could field a larger force in any one place, beat it, and move on. After enough losses, the remaining Chinese would simply yield. – lly Mar 6 '20 at 19:50
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