Both the Renaissance and the Printing Press are dated to be around the 14th century. While the first Printing Press was in 1436 (Johannes Gutenberg), the Renaissance is also supposed to start around a similar time-frame. I suspect that both influenced the right of the other.

Is it true, that the Renaissance was influenced as scientific ideas were more easily propagated than they had been in the past? It would be interesting to know one way or the other!

  • Did you ask this question just for me? :-)
    – T.E.D.
    Jan 9 '17 at 23:59
  • if you can answer it, why not :)
    – shirish
    Jan 10 '17 at 0:14
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    I am personally of the opinion, and have brought it up on probably an absurd amount of answers here, that nearly every component of what we call "The Renaissance" was a result of the Printing Press.
    – T.E.D.
    Jan 10 '17 at 2:09
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    @T.E.D. I am not so sure. Valuable as it was, the spread of the printing press took its time, and the production of the books themselves also needed some considerable time. Yes by 1500 there were lots of printing presses and books edited, but by that time the Renaissance had been going on for quite some time. Also, if the printing press were that determinant, you would expect the Renaissance to have developed in Germany/Central Europe and not in Italy.
    – SJuan76
    Jan 10 '17 at 10:01
  • came to know that at least en.wikipedia.org/wiki/De_Officiis made some contribution to the Renaissance movement which was the second book printed after the Gutenberg Bible.
    – shirish
    Jan 10 '17 at 18:54

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