1

I don't know much about the history of Arya and Dravida:

I've heard that word Arya is found in Hindu Scripture (Veda) and Arya is related to Indus valley civilization while Dravida is related with south India.

For example, while reading the difference between Vadakalai & Thenkalai, I've found:

The Sri Vaishnava sect has its origins in the works of the Alwars, a group of 12 ancient Vaishnava saints who lived in Tamil Nadu and are famous for their poetry in praise of Vishnu. The 4000 poems of the Alwars were collected by Nathamuni into a book called the Naalayira Divya Prabhandam, which started being thought of as the Dravida Veda, or Veda of South India.
.......
.......
Manavala Mamunigal and his successors believed that words of the Alwars are of paramount importance, and that they contain all the important messages of the Vedas and more, so they started called themselves Thenkalai (the Southern group), because their supreme scripture was the Naalayira Divya Prabhanda, which is from South India. Vedanta Desikan and his successors still believed that Alwars' words were sacred, but they also thought that we shouldn't neglect the importance of Sanskrit scripture like the Vedas. Since they placed some emphasis on scripture that had come from North India, they became known as Vadakalai (the Northern group).

This implies that Sanskrit Vedas are related to North India.

In addition I've heard that Vedas are related to (originated by) Arya, while Aagama are related to (originated by) Dravida.

I'm looking for any historical/archaeological study carried out in order to know the ancient history.

|improve this question
  • 3
    I appreciate that this is a history question, but since it also concerns the composition of Hindu scriptures, you might want to consider asking it on Hinduism.SE. As an historical question only, am I right in assuming that it basically boils down to whether the Aryan people were from the south or the north of India, and what their relationship is with the Dravidan people? – Shimon bM Jan 30 '17 at 0:44
  • I have edited you question to get it to flow better. Please review the edit to make sure your meaning is clear. Asking for a discussion not what SE sites area about, so I removed that request and suggest you rephrase your last sentence into a question. (For example, what is the most current or best study on the ancient histories ... ) – KorvinStarmast Jan 30 '17 at 13:00
  • My understanding (see e.g. Wikipedia) is that the little that can be deduced from the still untranslatable script used by the Indus valley civilization, and other evidence including the persistence of a Dravidian language in one remote area in the north, is that the prevailing view of scholars is that the Indus valley civilization was most likely Dravidian speaking. The Arya were probably invaders, speaking the Indo-European language that became Sanskrit, and having the advantage of horses and chariots, who destroyed the Indus Valley Civilization, largely confining Dravidian to the south. – Timothy Jan 30 '17 at 18:00
  • @Timothy -- I believe the current archeological thinking is that the decline of urban Indus Valley Civilization began centuries before the Aryan migrations/invasions (possibly due to local climate changes), so that at least some of the major cities and larger towns were already abandoned. So what the Aryans (gradually) conquered was probably a more rural descendant of the original IVC. – Peter Erwin Feb 4 '17 at 13:42

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.