This question already has an answer here:
There is no one commonly accepted definition of Feudalism, but we can broadly define it as a system of reciprocal obligations between landowners and serfs. It was the dominant system of politics and economics in medieval Europe.
However, as far as I can tell most major civilizations passed through a similar stage, often before adopting something we'd regard as a recognizable modern political settlement. It is common to hear of a feudal period in Shogunate Japan, for example. A little research suggests that the Zhou Dynasty in China, Moghul India and the early Ottoman Empire could all be described as "feudal" under our rough definition.
The reasons for feudalism to arise in all these cases differs in the detail but does seem to be linked to the total or partial collapse of a single, stable ruling power.
So my question is: can we mark Feudalism as a necessary stage in the development of modern democratic or dictatorial government? If so, why? And if not, are there any examples of advanced societies that have not passed though this stage?