This one thing was always troubling me. How and why could the Belorussian and Ukranian SSRs gain so much of theoretical autonomy so as to have their own autonomous Foreign Policies while other states couldn't?
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2Have you checked the Wikipedia? It is a must to do some basic research before asking questions: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ukraine_and_the_United_Nations, en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Soviet_Union_and_the_United_Nations. Feel free to edit the question for reopen in case you have doubts that are not answered by those.– SJuan76Jul 22, 2017 at 16:25
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1Possible duplicate of Why did the Soviet Union get 3 seats in the UN?– Be Brave Be Like UkraineJul 23, 2017 at 5:02
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1 Answer
It was a diplomatic fiction. The UN was set up to represent the international power balance at the end of WWII, not just the ideals of democracy, equality, and freedom.
The capitalist winners of WWII had three permanent seats in the security council, four is you count the RoC as capitalist, while the communist winners had just one. Similar numbers in the general assembly. So the Soviets got two extra delegations with extra votes in the general assembly, but no extra veto powers -- one veto is enough to stop any action.
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@FelixGoldberg, I said that they got extra votes in the general assembly because there extra votes would matter, but not in the UNSC.– o.m.Jul 22, 2017 at 16:32
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It's an ok conjecture but I happen to know that it is not correct. Jul 22, 2017 at 16:34
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@FelixGoldberg, I thought that came up at Yalta where Stalin wanted more seats, and got three.– o.m.Jul 22, 2017 at 16:37
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@FelixGoldberg can you provide evidence for your position - you might be right, but simply saying "I know I'm right" is not enough– user13123Jul 23, 2017 at 4:34