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Administrative language of Muslim rulers was usually Persian. But I doubt Tipu's courts used Persian. Was it Persian or Kannada? Even the Nizams started using Urdu instead of Persian after the 1800s.

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    Just a nitpick and possibly anecdotal, but FYI modern-day Iranians (aka Persians) that I've met all called their language Farsi rather than Persian. – Denis de Bernardy Aug 26 '17 at 20:49
  • @Denis de Bernandy 'persian' is just anglicized 'farsi'. Even here in india, the language is referred to as Farsi. In fact, Urdu draws a lot of vocab from farsi, one reason being that it was extensively used even in india as an administrative language – Polisetty Aug 26 '17 at 20:53
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    If you doubt the existing narrative, you must satisfy the burden of proof. Why do you doubt that TIppu's courts used Farsi? – Mark C. Wallace Aug 26 '17 at 21:42
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    @DenisdeBernardy. In English we say “Persian” not “Farsi”, just as we say “French” not “Français”. If you really want to make a nationalist issue of it then you might take on board the “Fārsī” with “f” is actually an Arabic word, while “Persian” with “p” goes back, via Latin and Greek, to Old Persian “Pārs”. – fdb Aug 26 '17 at 21:57
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    Who was Tipu and why do you doubt that he used Persian. Unless you explain this, the question is trivial. – Tom Au Aug 26 '17 at 22:39
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According to the Wikipedia page on Tipu Sultan, he made Persian the official language throughout his kingdom.

This seems to be confirmed in Language in South Asia, by Braj B. Kachru, Yamuna Kachru, & S. N. Sridhar:

Parts of South India came under Muslim rule in various periods, especially during the reign of the Bahamani kings in Andrha Pradesh and north Karnataka, and that of Hyder Ali and Tippu Sultan [sic] in south Karnataka. During the Latter period (eighteenth century), Persian was the official language of the princely state of Mysore, with official records being kept in that language.

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