Administrative language of Muslim rulers was usually Persian. But I doubt Tipu's courts used Persian. Was it Persian or Kannada? Even the Nizams started using Urdu instead of Persian after the 1800s.

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    Just a nitpick and possibly anecdotal, but FYI modern-day Iranians (aka Persians) that I've met all called their language Farsi rather than Persian. Aug 26, 2017 at 20:49
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    If you doubt the existing narrative, you must satisfy the burden of proof. Why do you doubt that TIppu's courts used Farsi?
    – MCW
    Aug 26, 2017 at 21:42
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    @DenisdeBernardy. In English we say “Persian” not “Farsi”, just as we say “French” not “Français”. If you really want to make a nationalist issue of it then you might take on board the “Fārsī” with “f” is actually an Arabic word, while “Persian” with “p” goes back, via Latin and Greek, to Old Persian “Pārs”.
    – fdb
    Aug 26, 2017 at 21:57
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    @fdb: It's not about nationalism. Or maybe it is at the end of the day. But to my eye, it's about this related topic. Aug 26, 2017 at 22:02
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    Who was Tipu and why do you doubt that he used Persian. Unless you explain this, the question is trivial.
    – Tom Au
    Aug 26, 2017 at 22:39

1 Answer 1


According to the Wikipedia page on Tipu Sultan, he made Persian the official language throughout his kingdom.

This seems to be confirmed in Language in South Asia, by Braj B. Kachru, Yamuna Kachru, & S. N. Sridhar:

Parts of South India came under Muslim rule in various periods, especially during the reign of the Bahamani kings in Andrha Pradesh and north Karnataka, and that of Hyder Ali and Tippu Sultan [sic] in south Karnataka. During the Latter period (eighteenth century), Persian was the official language of the princely state of Mysore, with official records being kept in that language.

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