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One of Nasser's more historic changes he enacted was land reform. This took the form of placing limits on land ownership in terms of feddans, nationalization of large amounts of land, and the issuance of bonds to pay back owners who had their land confiscated.

Prior to this, land ownership was concentrated in a tiny percentage of the population.

Muhammad Ali of Egypt had broken the Ottoman power hold on Egypt in 1805. But he himself was from the Ottoman empire. So it makes sense to believe that the dynasty he established was of Ottoman descent.

Was the inequality in the 1950s in Egypt the legacy of the Ottoman Empire? Did Nasser's reform end the power of an aristocracy descended from the Ottoman empire?

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    Note: In addition to being de facto independent since Muhamad Ali, Egypt was a de facto British protectorate since 1882 – user69715 Sep 11 '17 at 2:42
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    Also, define "the legacy of the Ottoman Empire"? I suppose of course the Ottoman rule was a factor, but not the only one. – user69715 Sep 11 '17 at 2:43
  • I suppose the phrase I am looking for is "part of the legacy"? – Eric Urban Sep 11 '17 at 11:14
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    Muhammad Ali of Egypt was Albanian in ethnic origin, not Turkish – Henry Sep 11 '17 at 14:25
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    @Henry: Albania at the time was part of the Ottoman Empire. So that could have made him "Ottoman" in outlook, even though he helped overthrow the "real" Ottomans. – Tom Au Sep 11 '17 at 15:15

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