I have read in the history of crusaders that Catholic kingdoms in Europe including England and France and Holy Roman Empire participated in the crusades but not Spain, any clear reason for that? Were any calls from the Pope refused?

  • For example en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Crusades – Mr.lock Oct 2 '17 at 18:03
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    The Reconquista to free Iberia from the Muslims was every bit a crusade such as those in the Holy Land; except enjoying long term success. – Pieter Geerkens Oct 2 '17 at 18:42
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    Cite sources in questoion, but my dowvote is for I have read... – MCW Oct 2 '17 at 22:37
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    The question is not trivial and it should be reopened: Although it's true that the existing answers include easy to research facts, it should be answered that there was a (maybe half backed) attempt to launch a crusade in the Holy Land in times of Jaume I: ca.wikipedia.org/wiki/Croada_de_Jaume_I . I think that the question should be reopened to actually answer the question. – Pere Jun 30 '18 at 11:49

There wasn't much Spain to speak of until later, and the Spaniards were already crusading in Spain before, during, and after what's usually referred to as the Crusades:

enter image description here

(gif via http://www.newworldencyclopedia.org/entry/Reconquista)

The last Muslim stronghold, Granada, fell in 1492 - the same year Columbus discovered America, putting the Age of Discovery in full motion and shifting the focus away from controlling the Levant.

  • As per the gif on 1150 there was few Christian kingdoms in the north and during that the crusade wars was already running – Mr.lock Oct 2 '17 at 19:23
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    @Mr.lock Actually, the term "Crusade" is in general very misleading, as it implies an unity of purpose that was generally absent. For most of the time, and specially since the Caliphate of Cordoba disintegrated, it was a complex network of alliances and vassalages that most often than not mixed Christian and Muslim kingdoms against other Christian and Muslim kingdoms. The most "Crusade" events happened as a result of the invasion by the Almoravids from North Africa that got the Christian kingdoms to (briefly) unite against the Muslims. The Wikipedia page explains this. – SJuan76 Oct 2 '17 at 19:54
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    I think that it would be worth mentioning the abundance of religious military orders; those were indeed very religion oriented and would have been an attractive offer to everyone wishing to fight for religious reasons, at the service of their kings and without the need to cross all the Mediterranean Sea. Calatrava, Santiago, Aviz, Saint Michel.... – SJuan76 Oct 2 '17 at 19:59

The Christian Kingdoms of Spain were at intermittent wars with the Muslims and also with each other (e.g. see Timeline of the Muslim presence in the Iberian Peninsula which contains dates of major battles and wars). In addition, unlike France and England who could come up with some sort of truce while they went on Crusade, I don't think the Muslims of Spain would have granted any truce to respect their Christian rivals going on Crusade.

Therefore, sending their leaders and warriors across the sea to fight someone else's war would have been a suicidal move for these kingdoms.

  • Unless based on actual evidence, I find "I don't think the Muslims of Spain would have observed any truce to respect their Christian rivals going on Crusade" a useless and totally bigoted thing to say. If you have evidence, please supply it.I would suggest that backstabbing amongst the rival Christian Kingdoms of Iberia was more likely than from the Islamic, if you know anything of the El Cid legend. – Pieter Geerkens Oct 2 '17 at 19:11
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    @PieterGeerkens updated "observed" to "granted". is it better? I was meaning to say there's no way they would go "oh they went on crusade and their land is unprotected? let's do nothing for now and wait until they come back and attack us again!" I don't think any bigotry is needed to come to that conclusion – user69715 Oct 2 '17 at 19:16

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