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I realize that 150 years passed between this conversion and Jews being invited back to England but I wonder if, as in Spain, it would not have happened for many years even after that? I also realize that there was antisemitism in Protestant countries, too, but it seems like, as in the case of Holland, there was more tolerance of religious minorities and in particular Jews there.

closed as primarily opinion-based by Pieter Geerkens, Alex, KorvinStarmast, Ne Mo, Semaphore Dec 24 '17 at 21:55

Many good questions generate some degree of opinion based on expert experience, but answers to this question will tend to be almost entirely based on opinions, rather than facts, references, or specific expertise. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

  • Very interesting idea. Especially given that Protestants took a much greater in the Old Testament than Catholics. – Felix Goldberg Dec 24 '17 at 9:24
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    @felixgoldberg - is there a word missing? Something doesn't scan right. – Mark C. Wallace Dec 24 '17 at 14:36
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    @MarkC.Wallace Yes, thanks! It should be "greater interest" – Felix Goldberg Dec 24 '17 at 15:41
  • Recommend closing as a counterfactual / speculation ... – KorvinStarmast Dec 24 '17 at 17:55