New Spain's independence struggle led to adopting the national identity of "México", the name of its major city and the Mexica society there. In referring to a specific indigenous group, Mexico seems to be unique among the independence names of former Spanish viceroyalties. I got interested in what this meant for centralism and exclusion; here's what I've learned about the adoption of the name:
In 1730 the principal newspaper Gaceta de México used the phrase "Imperio Mexicano" to refer to the Aztec Empire, but in 1785 and afterwards it innocently used the same name for the viceroyalty ("... algunas provincias del Imperio Mexicano con motivo del extrañamiento de los Jesuitas ...").
In 1810-1811, the father of Mexican independence Miguel Hidalgo consistently called his country "América", not using the term "México", at least in the documents available on WikiSource. Similarly, the Lista del juramento de los habitantes de San Blas al cura Mercado contains the demonym "americano" but not "mexicano".
From 1810 to 1821 there was an official newspaper called Gaceta del Gobierno de México, referring to the seat of power, if not the territory it governed. This transitioned after independence into the Gaceta del Gobierno del Imperio de México.
In 1821, the Plan de Iguala and the Declaration of Independence both called the new state the "Imperio Mexicano".
None of the principal revolutionaries were Mexica, but at some point they apparently reached a consensus to use the meronym "México" for their new country. It would have begun to describe areas never subjugated by the Mexica, like Sinaloa, Guatemala, and New Mexico. Understandably, some Apaches and Mayans proceeded to resist the authority of a country whose name excluded them.
Prior to 1821, who supported or opposed the adoption of the name "Mexico"? How seriously were alternatives like "America" considered?