This question could be a toss-up between linguistics and history, but considering the answer is almost certainly due to the historical background surrounding the terms, here is the better choice.

Why is it that despite a clear shared origin, the word for the country the Philippines is spelled with 'ph' yet the word for the language Filipino is spelled with 'f'?

closed as off-topic by Semaphore May 3 '18 at 8:58

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    This has already been answered on Stackexchange here english.stackexchange.com/questions/49101/… – ed.hank May 2 '18 at 21:52
  • FYI There are discussions of the names' etymology on the Wiki entries of Philippines and Filipino. Besides the Spanish vs English spelling, the natives' language had no F sound, which led to the introduction of an alphabet without an F. – Denis de Bernardy May 3 '18 at 10:45