I was watching the film Suffragette recently and she mentioned her husband having the vote.
I thought he looked too poor to already have the vote, but this didn't look like a film to just ignore history.
Ok the 1884 Reform Act introduced:
all adult householders and men who rented unfurnished lodgings to the value of £10 a year.
Which I can imagine was quite a substantial property in 1884, but who did it cover by 1918? Would it have covered a worker in a factory as the film says?
So money she was paid 18 shillings a week, which comes out to £48.6 pounds a year, her husband was paid a few shilling a week more to say £90 pounds between them.
So it is possible they could afford £10 a year rent between them, but in that case which working men got the vote in 1918, if a factory worker could already afford a £10 a year house.
I have just realised the possible significance of unfurnished, did poor people all rent furnished property?
The film said this ordinary working man had the vote, my calculations show it was possible he had the vote.
But the 1918 Act gave "working men the vote".
So one of these two statements must be wrong. Were working class men able to vote before the 1918 Act like the film depicts?