I recently came across the Kalash people of Pakistan and Afghanistan (thanks to this amazing music, if anyone's interested). As far as I can tell, studies seem to suggest the Kalash are indigenous to the areas they migrated to in those respective countries, from Central Asia. I then looked at the definition of indigenous people, which says they are:
...ethnic groups who are the original inhabitants of a given region, in contrast to groups that have settled, occupied or colonized the area more recently.
This made me wonder; if historians/anthropologists define an indigenous population as the first peoples or original people of a given area, such as a country, then can said country have only one such indigenous population - the one that got there first?
In the case of the Kalash of Chitral, Pakistan - who are Pakistan's smallest ethnoreligious community at a relatively decimated population of just 3000, and one of its most remote in the mountainous valleys of Khyber-Pakhtunkhwa - if we assume they migrated to Pakistan before any other ethnic group, would this make them Pakistan's only indigenous population? How are these things actually defined?