Given that the validity of the Western legates' act is doubtful since Pope Leo had died and Cerularius' excommunication only applied to individuals, why was the schism allowed to continue to the mutual detriment of the church especially the papal given that the New World had not been 'discovered' a millennium ago the pope would have lost supremacy over a very large population in Christendom?
Another point I'm not sure on is that of the four original patriarchies Rome, Jerusalem, Alexandria and Antioch did the schism applies to the three see's as well as the fifth patriarchy of Constantinople?
What were the positions of Jerusalem, Alexandria and Antioch?
Did Alexandria and Antioch see's still exist?
If so why would the excommunication apply to Jerusalem, Alexandria and Antioch too?