I can cite an example: in Dumas’ “De Vicomte de Bragelonne”, Athos’ son (the Vicomte) decides to go to war in Algeria, where he fights against the Arabs:
“The vicomte was summoned to surrender by the Arabs, but he made them a negative sign with his head, and continued to march towards the palisades. This was a mortal imprudence. Nevertheless the entire army was pleased that he would not retreat, since ill-chance had led him so near. He marched a few paces further, and the two regiments clapped their hands. It was at this moment the second discharge shook the walls, and the Vicomte de Bragelonne again disappeared in the smoke; but this time the smoke dispersed in vain; we no longer saw him standing. He was down, with his head lower than his legs, among the bushes, and the Arabs began to think of leaving their intrenchments to come and cut off his head or take his body—as is the custom with the infidels. But Monseigneur le Duc de Beaufort had followed all this with his eyes, and the sad spectacle drew from him many painful sighs. He then cried aloud, seeing the Arabs running like white phantoms among the mastic-trees, ‘Grenadiers! lancers! will you let them take that noble body?’”
As far as I understand (it’s hard because there are no reliable statistics), Algeria is a majority-Berber country. Now my impression is that in literature, Berber countries such as Algeria and Morocco are referred as Arab countries. There is (almost) no trace of fights between colonialists and Berbers in North Africa. How can this be explained?