last week I had this question in my test and I had trouble with it, I searched on the internet about this but not any website has a useful explanation. My question was:

How was the manorial system a consequence of the collapse of the Western Roman Empire?

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    You mean other than the fact that one replaced the other? This might be somewhat too broad a question for this website's format... :-| – Denis de Bernardy Jun 27 '19 at 16:40
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    Can you edit your question so it's clearer what parts of the relevant wiki entry are unclear? The history section seems fairly concise. – Denis de Bernardy Jun 27 '19 at 16:42
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    Concur with the above; questions should at a minimum discuss why the relevant Wikipedia entries are not adequate. – Mark C. Wallace Jun 27 '19 at 16:57
  • What was your answer? – ed.hank Jun 27 '19 at 21:36

What means the fall of Roman Empire for a peasant? It means not only insecurity and lack of safety, that was given by the Empire in the past. It also means that nobody collect taxes, because the bureocracy is no longer there for it.
How a band of barbarians take ownership of the land taken from the Empire? Since they don't have the bureocracy (most of them are illiterate), they divide the land among their people, leaving the former roman peasants under the jurisdiction of the new lords. This is how feudalism begins, is a way to control the territory without a bureocracy or a centralized state.
Once a monarch is able to have effective control over the territory, feudalism retreats.

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    Please provide citations. The Germanic kingdoms that settled former Roman areas were very much romanized when they arrived, or at least when they settled in their future lands, and actually made extensive use of pre-existing Roman laws and administrative apparatus. – Denis de Bernardy Jun 27 '19 at 17:19
  • and taxes were definitely collected regardless of who was in charge. – ed.hank Jun 27 '19 at 21:37

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