These question and answer have established than even after the abolition of slavery by the Thirteenth Amendment to the US Constitution, felons have been sentenced to be "sold as slave" for a given time (typically one or two years) and auctioned at least until 1866.

When was the last occurrence of such a sentence: to be sold as slave ?

NB: A sentence to slavery is different from convict leasing, which ended in 1928, and concerned people condemned to prison. I am not interested in people condemned to prison and somehow forced to work while doing their time, but in sentences that explicitely mention the convict to be sold and/or to become a slave.

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    Don't chain gangs still exist in Arizona? If you do include forms of convict leasing and inmates working from their prison, the answer basically is: it's still happening. – Denis de Bernardy Jul 3 '19 at 14:30
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    The point to my NB was precisely to exclude convict leasing. I will try to make it clearer. – Evargalo Jul 3 '19 at 14:43
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    My leads didn't lead anywhere, even the early 1870s didn't pan out (no mention of 'slave'). Peonage (debt slavery) was common in the south and sometimes even inherited despite being outlawed in 1867, with cases reported up until at least the 1920s (see Peon). This is a very frustrating question... – Lars Bosteen Jul 4 '19 at 14:18
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    I'm having trouble distinguishing between the question and convict leasing, which you've said is not relevant. I've paid my local sheriff for the forced labor of prisoners. The only practical differences seem to be (a) do I provide bed-and-board for the "slave" or the State? and (b) in the old days the prisoner was "sold at auction" where today the prisoner is simply scheduled as-needed. But in both cases the State is paid for forced labor. Are you trying to link this to true slavery (where no law was broken) or uncontrolled overworking (not allowed anymore)? – JBH Jul 4 '19 at 16:41
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    @JBH : a judge would not sentence you to "convict leasing". They would sentence you to "prison". On other occurence, at least in the late 1860's, they did prononce a sentence of "being sold as a slave [for a given time]". I am interested in the later, not the former. – Evargalo Jul 12 '19 at 9:28

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