0

It has always been my understanding that the Netherlands lost control of the seas because of land wars against France, especially Louis XIV, and because of the difficulties involved in holding possessions in America and the Indies.

But I read in an article that philosophical and juridical reasons led the Netherlands to consider the impossibility of controlling the seas, and that they only managed to control the commercial lines.

Is this true, and what are these reasons?

Article: Venice, maritime superpower, War History, July-August 2019

  • 2
    What article did you read this in? – Pieter Geerkens Aug 17 at 17:57
  • A magazine whose native tongue is not english. It did just mention "the Netherlands did not achieve the control of the sea because of philisopophical and juridical reasons" – totalMongot Aug 17 at 18:38
  • 2
    Did you notice the spelling of my name? It's Dutch and Fries. Please link the article regardless of what language it's in - in the question, as comments are ephemeral and subject to arbitrary deletion at any time by moderators. – Pieter Geerkens Aug 17 at 18:55
  • 2
    @totalMongot Just include the title and date of the magazine as your citation. Most people here know that not everything is available on the Internet. – sempaiscuba Aug 17 at 19:06
  • 1
    Which part of that is the name of the magazine? – Semaphore Aug 17 at 19:22

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.