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To the extent of my knowledge, the Spanish transition to democracy was not at all revolutionary, but a sequence of actions overseen (at least partially) by/from the State. After the Spanish Bourbon restoration Spain was a kingdom, then in 1931 turned to a republic, later in 1936 the "State" term was coined (in this meaning).

Is still Spain formally the "Estado Español" (Spanish State) altogether with the "Reino de España" (Kingdom of Spain), according to Spanish law?

closed as off-topic by Mark Johnson, Steve Bird, Semaphore Aug 19 at 11:46

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    I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because it is an internal Wikipedia affair and should be delt with there. – Mark Johnson Aug 19 at 9:00
  • Please edit your post to focus on only one specific question. Wikipedia's naming policy is not in scope here, but the legal basis for the renaming of the Spanish State would be. PS: The reason Wikipedia redirect "Spanish State" to "Francoist Spain" is because that's the common name of the Spanish historical period to which "Spanish State" belongs, whereas the article "Spain" is about the current country. – Semaphore Aug 19 at 11:49
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    @uprego Asking you to clarify your question in line with the purpose of History.SE as a Q&A site on history, is not "censorship". – Semaphore Aug 19 at 12:05
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    @MarkC.Wallace The latest edit seems to make it a question about the present legal state of the country, rather than one about history. – sempaiscuba Aug 19 at 12:38
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    I somehow fail to understand why the OP uses "kingdom" and "state" as if they were somehow mutually exclusive...? – DevSolar Aug 19 at 13:30
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EDIT: This answer was posted in response to the original version of the question.


The first part of your question, and the question in your title, appears to be answered in the Wikipedia article on Francoist Spain that you cited:

"... officially known as the Spanish State (Spanish: Estado Español) from 1936 to 1947 and the Kingdom of Spain (Spanish: Reino de España) from 1947 to 1975"

The Wikipedia article on "Spanish State" redirects to Francoist Spain because that was the official name of the state from 1936 to 1947 (i.e. during the "Francoist" era)


The legal basis for the change from "Spanish State" to "Kingdom of Spain" would appear to be Article 1 of the Ley de Sucesión en la Jefatura del Estado (Law of Succession to the Headship of the State) which states:

"Spain, as a political union, is a Catholic, social and representative State that, according to its tradition, is declared a Kingdom"

(my emphasis)

So, after that law was passed in 1947, Spain became officially known as "The Kingdom of Spain".


The Wikipedia article on Francoist Spain that you cited has a link to the Law of Succession to the Headship of the State (via the 1947 referendum on that law) in the section titled Government.


The 1947 Law of Succession to the Headship of the State is one of the eight Fundamental Laws of the Realm established in Spain between 1938 and 1977.

  • I don't understand how art. 1 of 1947's LEY DE SUCESION EN LA JEFATURA DEL ESTADO (capitalized in the source) renders the Spanish State denomination obsolete, though I would ask that in the Law SE site. Meanwhile, you already get my upvote. – 38876 Aug 19 at 11:20

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