To the extent of my knowledge, the Spanish transition to democracy was not at all revolutionary, but a sequence of actions overseen (at least partially) by/from the State. After the Spanish Bourbon restoration Spain was a kingdom, then in 1931 turned to a republic, later in 1936 the "State" term was coined (in this meaning).

Is still Spain formally the "Estado Español" (Spanish State) altogether with the "Reino de España" (Kingdom of Spain), according to Spanish law?

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    I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because it is an internal Wikipedia affair and should be delt with there. Aug 19, 2019 at 9:00
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    @uprego Asking you to clarify your question in line with the purpose of History.SE as a Q&A site on history, is not "censorship".
    – Semaphore
    Aug 19, 2019 at 12:05
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    @MarkC.Wallace The latest edit seems to make it a question about the present legal state of the country, rather than one about history. Aug 19, 2019 at 12:38
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    I somehow fail to understand why the OP uses "kingdom" and "state" as if they were somehow mutually exclusive...?
    – DevSolar
    Aug 19, 2019 at 13:30
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    All fifty states the USA are states according to the Constitution and laws, even though the official names of four of them use "Commonwealth" instead of State. The official name of France is the French Republic, but that doesn't make France less of a state, country, or nation than any other independent sovereign state.
    – MAGolding
    Aug 19, 2019 at 20:22

1 Answer 1


EDIT: This answer was posted in response to the original version of the question.

The first part of your question, and the question in your title, appears to be answered in the Wikipedia article on Francoist Spain that you cited:

"... officially known as the Spanish State (Spanish: Estado Español) from 1936 to 1947 and the Kingdom of Spain (Spanish: Reino de España) from 1947 to 1975"

The Wikipedia article on "Spanish State" redirects to Francoist Spain because that was the official name of the state from 1936 to 1947 (i.e. during the "Francoist" era)

The legal basis for the change from "Spanish State" to "Kingdom of Spain" would appear to be Article 1 of the Ley de Sucesión en la Jefatura del Estado (Law of Succession to the Headship of the State) which states:

"Spain, as a political union, is a Catholic, social and representative State that, according to its tradition, is declared a Kingdom"

(my emphasis)

So, after that law was passed in 1947, Spain became officially known as "The Kingdom of Spain".

The Wikipedia article on Francoist Spain that you cited has a link to the Law of Succession to the Headship of the State (via the 1947 referendum on that law) in the section titled Government.

The 1947 Law of Succession to the Headship of the State is one of the eight Fundamental Laws of the Realm established in Spain between 1938 and 1977.

  • I don't understand how art. 1 of 1947's LEY DE SUCESION EN LA JEFATURA DEL ESTADO (capitalized in the source) renders the Spanish State denomination obsolete, though I would ask that in the Law SE site. Meanwhile, you already get my upvote.
    – 38876
    Aug 19, 2019 at 11:20

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