A major point of contention between American colonists and British administrators was that the American colonists, being the descendants of Englishmen, allegedly should have been entitled to representation and other unique rights.

However, in reality what were the differences between the rights and circumstance of the colonists, and those living within the British Isles?

Did most American colonists have it better or worse than most British (England, Scotland, Wales, Ireland) before the revolution in the 1750s?

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    In addition to all other problems with this question - only in very very specific circumstances is it ever sensible to talk about an average person. For distributions anchored from zero to an unlimited upper bound, arithmetic mean is a non-robust measure of central tendency. The median should always be used instead - as that is and remains a robust measure of central tendency. – Pieter Geerkens Oct 8 '19 at 13:24
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    It's a serious mistake to assume that there was a uniform system of rights across colonies and time periods. The British don't operate that way. Also, the American colonies were among the first British colonisation projects, and they were founded by different people with different motives. The independence of the colonies that became the USA made a definite difference to the subsequent operation of the British Empire. So it would be sensible to ask how the rights of American colonists in 1750 compared to those of Australian colonists in, say, 1850, but answering that will require research. – John Dallman Oct 8 '19 at 14:10
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    Reduced scope from comparing the colonies with the empire within undefined time period, to the british isles in the 1750s. If anyone feels this is still too broad please specify why. – inappropriateCode Oct 9 '19 at 9:25
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    @inappropriateCode I suspect that the question might receive a more positive response if it included some evidence for prior research. – sempaiscuba Oct 9 '19 at 13:54

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