Interpreting two recent studies on Aryan Invasion/Migration theory?

Question

Few months ago two studies published here in Cell and Science respectively and lot of authors in both the studies are common.

The science paper starts with

By sequencing 523 ancient humans, we show that the primary source of ancestry in modern South Asians is a prehistoric genetic gradient between people related to early hunter-gatherers of Iran and Southeast Asia.

It also concludes:

Earlier work recorded massive population movement from the Eurasian Steppe into Europe early in the third millennium BCE, likely spreading Indo-European languages. We reveal a parallel series of events leading to the spread of Steppe ancestry to South Asia, thereby documenting movements of people that were likely conduits for the spread of Indo-European languages.

However, the Cell paper’s brief is:

A genome from the Indus Valley Civilization is from a population that is the largest source for South Asians. The population has no detectable ancestry from Steppe pastoralists or from Anatolian and Iranian farmers, suggesting farming in South Asia arose from local foragers rather than from large-scale migration from the West.

I am trying to understand if the conclusions from two papers are consistent with each other or conflicting with each other. That is, Aryan Migration Theory is proved or disproved by this? Reason for my confusion is this article which indicates possible disagreement among the authors themselves.

There is discussion here from over 7 years ago but I thought my question requires a separate post since it is based on very recent studies.

Answer 1

The first paper basically says that genetically, some remains dated around 2500BCE from an Indus Valley Civilization individual show no central Asian (presumably Indo-European) component.

The second says that Modern South Asians do have that genetic component.

Both are entirely consistent with a historical picture where Indo-European speakers from central Asia moved into that area sometime around or after the end of the Indus Valley Civilization. They weren't there before, and now they are. Pretty simple.

If you read the second paper further, they even try to date and map this movement using ancient genetic sources.

This is also entirely consistent with the current historical consensus around the Indo-Aryan migrations, which is that they started moving into the area around 1800BCE. This is helpfully illustrated with this animated gif from Wikipedia: