I have read in the Economic Nobel's prize Thomas Piketty's book the following sentence (translation is mine):
"The Enlightenment movement and the Industrial Revolution were partially based on the colonies"
I am wondering to what extent is this sentence true? I mean, what specific resources or mechanisms help the Industrial Revolution (First or Second) or the Enlightenment Movement to start or to maintain themselves?
It could be seen on the Internet, as comments stated, how the industrial revolution use colonies: get cotton from India for example. But this was not the basement of Industrial Revolution, since a consistent industrial system already existed to use the input from colonies and to give output to colonies.
As far as I know, there are no speeches nor ideologies, at the time of the First Industrial Revolution, that asked governments to gather colonies in order to develop industry. Other ways were used to develop industry:
- Basement of Industrial Revolution was vapour-powered engine, and thus coal: industrialized countries had that on their soil
- Some countries were industrialized without colonies (Prussia, Austria-Hungary, Russia)
So the question is, my apologize, not: "How did the Industrial Revolution use the colonies". It is :
- Did Industrial Revolution economic systems rely on colonies?
This could be either a country colony, or a colony reached through trade: for example, did Prussia interacted with India through Britain?
For the three periods mentionned:
- Enlightnement movement: Colonies did not exist yet, neither industry. Spanish occupation of America and harbour trade were in place. Issues to consider: Did it ask for colonies as a way to develop (whatever the details)?
- First Industrial Revolution: Colonies did not exist yet, industry is starting. Does the industrial development ask for colonies as a way to sustain?
- Second Industrial Revolution: Colonies and industry established. Interact as the example of Indian cotton above. No issues to consider in the scope of this question.