0

Were you required to purchase a land deed to get permission from the ruler of the area, or could you build wherever you wanted? If the latter is how it worked throughout Europe for the most part, I assume it only applied within reason. I seriously doubt you could build a house in the middle of someone’s wheat field.

  • 1
    This question seems to assume that property laws were constant over a period of a thousand years right across dozens of European states - which certainly wasn't the case. You need to narrow down the period and location considerably to make this an answerable question. (Although I suspect the answer will generally be all the land belonged to the ruler of the state and there was no 'private' property.) – Steve Bird May 1 at 8:26
  • 1
    As Steve Bird says, the middle ages lasted for a thousand years with much social change in different places. But although Steve Bird is correct that there are dozens of European states today, the number fluctuated greatly during the middle ages. In 1030 there were about 30 Muslim Taifas and several Christian kingdoms in Spain and Portugal. For most of the middle ages there were dozens of kingdoms, maybe over 100, in Ireland. Systems of law could vary from place to place within a kingdom or other state. – MAGolding May 1 at 16:47

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.