There is this short story I am writing, and I want to be somewhat historically accurate in the details.

In the story, there is a young orphan boy who is serving as a deck-hand on a cargo ship from France to the New World (Quebec). The year would be 1635.

My question is, how much would he have gotten paid for serving as deckhand on the overseas voyage?

If, being a child, he doesn't get paid, and the Mate wanted to give him a little gift of our modern $30, how much would he give him? (I'm looking at this page) Would it be in sols, maybe?

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    Hello & Welcome! They wouldn't be going from England to Quebec in 1635 as Quebec would have been French. English settlements would have been in St John's and perhaps around the Hudson Bay. – gktscrk Jun 1 at 15:27
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    Likely zero. He'd be fed and that's it. – Spencer Jun 1 at 15:59
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    @Spencer: More likely: fed, clothed, housed, and trained in one or more valuable trades in addition to being an able-bodied seaman: carpentry, gunnery, cooking, sail-making/repair, galley-work, perhaps evven navigation if mathematically inclied preparing him for service in His Majesty's Navy as amidshipman.. – Pieter Geerkens Jun 1 at 16:09
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    More likely to be a ship's boy than a midshipman. Midshipman's billets are limited, and more likely to be filled by children of privilege. And as Mr. Geerkens says, why would anyone pay a child? Children are trained, not paid. – Mark C. Wallace Jun 1 at 16:26
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    @gktscrk: Can't speak for the Ancien Regime's practice - but Royal Navy ships were always short of hands (at least in times of war - which was frequent) - that's the excuse if not the cause of the War of 1812-15. – Pieter Geerkens Jun 1 at 16:37

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