JacobIRR's question is badly flawed. They assume that the royal family owns the country as their private property in all monarchies which is highly inaccurate. They assume that the difference between a monarchy and a republic and between a non democracy and a democracy are more or less identical, which is not correct.
There have been many countries which transitioned between monarchies and republics several times. And there have been many changes in the level of democracy of countries without those countries changing their basic forms of government.
Spain was a monarchy until 1868, a republic from 1868-1874, a monarchy from 1874-1931, a republic from 1931 until the Nationalist victory in 1939, a Francoist dictatorship from 1939-1975, and a monarchy since 1975. During that time there have been many changes from more democratic to less democratic and from less democratic to more democratic.
Greece was a republic from 1822 to 1932, a kingdom from 1832 to 1924, a republic from 1924 to 1935, a kingdom from 1935 to 1975, and a republic since 1975. Changes in how democratic Greece was did not always coincide with transitions from one form of government to another.
The most famous example is France, which was a kingdom until 1792, a republic until 1804, an empire until 1814, a kingdom until 1815, an empire again in 1815, a kingdom from 1815 to 1848, a republic from 1848 to 1852, an Empire from 1852 to 1870, and a republic from 1870 to 1940, the Vichy Regime from 1940 to 1945, and a republic since 1945. There have been other changes in government such as the replacement of one dynasty with another in 1830 and the replacement of the Fourth Republic with the Fifth Republic in 1958.
There have also been many changes in democracy levels in France since 1789, some of which did not result from changes in regimes.
At the present time the majority of countries are republics, and many of them have had changes in their levels of democracy since becoming republics.