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In the 20th century, many monarchies were either abolished or made "strictly ornamental" and their countries were democratized.

Has there ever been a case of the public opting to re-instate or re-empower an absolute monarchy? Or has an absolute monarchy ever retaken power in a democracy? I'm mostly curious about The West, but would like to read about any such occurrences.

I consider an "ornamental" monarchy one that allows the public to vote on issues such as spending. Absolute monarchy being the complete opposite. I am not concerned with restrained/constitutional monarchy.

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    You are presupposing that a monarchy isn't democratic which doesn't work in my book. – gktscrk Jul 6 '20 at 20:38
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    The Commonwealth of England comes to mind, as does the French Republic, or Rome; I seem to recall it happening in the Greek city states. During the Constitutional Convention, it was argued that this was the inevitable fate of democracy. – Mark C. Wallace Jul 6 '20 at 20:45
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    @JacobIRR Your definitions of a monarchy as a country where the royal family privately owns the country is extremely flawed. Furthermore, the distinctions between monarchy and republic and non democracy and democracy are not indentical. – MAGolding Jul 6 '20 at 20:49
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    In which case the question should be "Has a democracy reverted to an autocracy?" and the answer would still be "Yes". – gktscrk Jul 7 '20 at 4:50
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Short Answer:

Yes.

Long answer:

JacobIRR's question is badly flawed. They assume that the royal family owns the country as their private property in all monarchies which is highly inaccurate. They assume that the difference between a monarchy and a republic and between a non democracy and a democracy are more or less identical, which is not correct.

There have been many countries which transitioned between monarchies and republics several times. And there have been many changes in the level of democracy of countries without those countries changing their basic forms of government.

Spain was a monarchy until 1868, a republic from 1868-1874, a monarchy from 1874-1931, a republic from 1931 until the Nationalist victory in 1939, a Francoist dictatorship from 1939-1975, and a monarchy since 1975. During that time there have been many changes from more democratic to less democratic and from less democratic to more democratic.

Greece was a republic from 1822 to 1932, a kingdom from 1832 to 1924, a republic from 1924 to 1935, a kingdom from 1935 to 1975, and a republic since 1975. Changes in how democratic Greece was did not always coincide with transitions from one form of government to another.

The most famous example is France, which was a kingdom until 1792, a republic until 1804, an empire until 1814, a kingdom until 1815, an empire again in 1815, a kingdom from 1815 to 1848, a republic from 1848 to 1852, an Empire from 1852 to 1870, and a republic from 1870 to 1940, the Vichy Regime from 1940 to 1945, and a republic since 1945. There have been other changes in government such as the replacement of one dynasty with another in 1830 and the replacement of the Fourth Republic with the Fifth Republic in 1958.

There have also been many changes in democracy levels in France since 1789, some of which did not result from changes in regimes.

At the present time the majority of countries are republics, and many of them have had changes in their levels of democracy since becoming republics.

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  • I've edited the question to remove the focus from the grey area and strictly focus on the presence of an autocratic/absolute monarchy. – JacobIRR Jul 6 '20 at 21:57
  • +1, but I think you mean "a republic until 1940". Also for 18148 I think you mean 1848. – AllInOne Jul 7 '20 at 13:44
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    @AllinOne 13 I have corrected the dates in my answer. – MAGolding Jul 8 '20 at 2:58

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