Everything I read (from seemingly reputable sources) says the Nazis, although having "Socialist" in their name – were really far right fascists. They also, apparently, worked to eradicate socialism and socialists thinking in the party.

Britanica: Were the Nazi's socialists?

So how come in the Speech for the Heroes' Memorial Day (21 March 1943) does Hitler say this:

"Instead, it will increasingly strive to realize, in the service of the national interest everywhere, a true Volksgemeinschaft as the highest ideal. All the more so after the war, the German National Socialist state, which pursued this goal from the beginning, will tirelessly work for the realization of a program that will ultimately lead to a complete elimination of class differences and to the creation of a true socialist community." Wikisource:HitlersSpeechForHeroes

Even if this was a lie (to get popular support) – If he had already distanced himself from 'socialists', why was he still preaching 'socialism'?

  • 8
    This is a post on a heavily-trolled subject, which means it is quite likely be closed unless it is a very good question. To that end, I worry that there are no reference links of any kind in it, and the tone could be much less apologetic toward the subject than it currently is.
    – T.E.D.
    Aug 14, 2020 at 15:49
  • 2
    Benito Mussolini, father and founder of fascism, was a socialist prior to that. These two ideologies are not mutually exclusive. Marxism (international socialism) is not only version of socialism.
    – rs.29
    Aug 14, 2020 at 15:53
  • 5
    I will also warn that while this on the surface looks to be a history question, its all about definitions of political terms, which are themselves quite political because people today heavily identify with and against them. Also, the reason IMHO you are seeing all this talk on social media now is also heavily political. So you might get better answers on the Politics.SE (along with several very much worse answers, in my personal experience).
    – T.E.D.
    Aug 14, 2020 at 16:00
  • 4
    @TimMottram - Bad assumption. It didn't mean the same thing to everyone (then or now for that matter). In fact what he was doing was very much about trying to redefine terms.
    – T.E.D.
    Aug 14, 2020 at 16:03
  • 3
    Please do not solely reply in comments, but update the question via an edit with that info ('no dupe, because…') & any clarifications/refinements. [Note "to get the popular vote"? in 1943?] Aug 14, 2020 at 16:11


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