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I've been reading Riasanovsky's "A History of Russia" (2nd edition, so fairly out of date), and it comes out strongly against the Norman theory. Today though, most sources seem to lean heavily towards favoring it, and given the evidence it seems to make more sense in general.

What is our current understanding of the origin of the Kievan Rus?

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    It will be beneficial if you can explain what you find missing or unclear from the Wikipedia article, which seems quite detailed on the subject. This way people can get a clearer idea of what you're asking for without duplicating the wiki answer. – Semaphore Aug 25 at 7:46