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Trying to answer the question Why did the term "Byzantine Empire" enter common usage instead of "Eastern Roman Empire" or "Roman Empire", I find a presentation by the Greek Byzantologist Helene Ahrweiler at the France Culture radio. (The discussion is in French, accessible on the France culture website and on Youtube).

She says HERE that old Catholic anti-Byzantine bias is still reflected in the historiography of Catholic tradition by the use of the term "Byzantine", while those of Protestant tradition prefer "Late Roman Empire" (the "Anglo-Saxon") or "Oriental Roman Empire" (the Germans). I guess she means modern, contemporary historians, because some 19th century ones were nastier then Gibbon or Hegel.

In a comment under this meta answer I see this statement:

"On Wikipedia "Eastern Roman" redirects to "Byzantine Empire". I believe this [removing "Byzantine" and preferring "Roman"] corresponds better to the terminology used by a lot of Eastern-Europeans (the Greeks called their empire "Roman" until the end), but this website is in a Western European language." etc

Are the English-speaking and German-speaking historians prefering other terms instead of "Byzantine"?

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    Of what possible interest is this question, and its answer, except the promotion of bigotry? Who cares, and why does it matter, if there are statistical anomalies present in the relatively small sample of prominent historians. this should be immediately obvious if one substitutes "Jewish" or "Black" for any of the descrriptiver adjectives used in the question: protestant, German, English, etc. – Pieter Geerkens Nov 28 '20 at 0:53
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    Isn't this just a question of language? How is it different from the French calling Germany "Allemagne" rather than the proper "Deutschland"? – Gort the Robot Nov 28 '20 at 1:05
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    @peter geerkens, I think that's unduly harsh. The question could have been put more sensitively, but Catholicism is not a race like black or Jewish are. One's beliefs obviously have an effect on behaviour - what would be the point of having beliefs otherwise? Given the historical antipathy between Catholicism and Orthodoxy, it's plausible that Catholic writers were more likely than Protestants to favour the word Byzantine over anything suggesting a connection with Rome. It would be equally valid to ask what Muslim or for that matter Marxist historians called it. – Ne Mo Nov 29 '20 at 12:46