A supposed ancestor of mine, one 'Sir' Henry Kymbold (born 1280 in Hitcham, Suffolk) appears in a list of direct ancestors. Would 'sir' have even been in use in this period, or does this reflect wishful thinking on the part of some earlier genealogist. If it was in use, what would it have indicated? If a man were addressed as 'sir' would his male offspring necessarily have had some elevated standing? Would a 'sir' be considered nobility?
Thanks, Ted. Yes I saw the Wikipedia reference yesterday, but since he would've been 17 years old in 1297, thought it was worth a stab in the dark. Hitcham is in the agricultural hinterlands, and I believe subsequent generations were farmers, somewhere in the range of free or bond peasants most likely, hence the question of inheritance of privilege.