1

I'm currently studying Spanish Civil War. It seems that it was a tradition, that the military had power to intervene politics in Spain, at least before the establishment of Second Spanish Republic.

Also, since the removal of some military generals was one cause of the military coup in 1936, I think this means the incumbent political party didn't have enough control over the military.

3
  • 1
    Hi Sin Hai-fan, welcome to the History community. I hope someone can help you with this question of yours. Good luck! ;) – An old man in the sea. Feb 12 at 10:55
  • Welcome to History:Stack Exchange. Thank you for your question; please consider revising it to be more in line with our community expectations. Like many other stacks, we expect questions to provide evidence of prior research. That helps us to understand the question, and avoids our repeating work you've already done. Our help center, and other stacks provide additional resources to assist with revisions. – Moishe Kohan Feb 12 at 11:06
  • 2
    In particular, it does not appear that your post contains any actual questions. My suggestion would be start by reading this Wikipedia article on the history of Spain (say, the period starting after the Napoleonic Wars). – Moishe Kohan Feb 12 at 11:09