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Analytic Philosophy largely originated from the Anglo-American tradition of philosophy. It is arguably the dominant type of philosophy practiced today in most major universities, even in non English-speaking countries.

What accounts for the popularity of analytical philosophy? For instance, do any of the leading scholars on this matter make the claim that this is historically related to (caused by) the dominance of the British Empire and the United States?

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  • The first sentence of its WikiPedia page certainly seems to say so: "Analytic philosophy is a branch and tradition of philosophy using analysis which is popular in the Western World and particularly the Anglosphere, which began around the turn of the 20th century in the contemporary era and continues today."
    – T.E.D. ♦
    May 5, 2021 at 19:48
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    @T.E.D. Yes, but it doesn’t say whether the popularity of this philosophy style among non-English speaking countries is due to the rise of the British empire?
    – J Li
    May 5, 2021 at 19:51
  • True. Perhaps that clarification should be edited into the question?
    – T.E.D. ♦
    May 5, 2021 at 19:52
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    Is analytic philosophy dominant in India and China (at least a fourth of the population of the world)? What about France, Germany and Europe as a whole? As far as I know, there is something called Continental philosophy. And South America and Africa. And the muslim world. Have you done a survey of journals (not only in English)?
    – MasB
    May 5, 2021 at 20:34
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    Can any form of philosophy be said to be dominant, outside the very limited circle of people who consider themselves philosophers?
    – jamesqf
    May 6, 2021 at 16:41

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