In 1664, King Charles II of England ceded to his brother, the Duke of York, later King James II, a large tract of land that included all of New Netherland. This came at a period of considerable conflict between England and the Netherlands in the Anglo-Dutch Wars. Four English ships bearing 450 men, commanded by Richard Nicolls, seized the Dutch colony.
My question is: Why did King Charles cede New Amsterdam/ New York to James in 1664?
As in, my assumption is that Royal Family property is common, and doesn’t need to be transferred or ceded.