-2

I wanted to ask a pretty silly question about the English colonization of America. This book that I read said that the puritans were immigrating away from England to America for religious reasons, then they were called the "Plymouth colonies". My question is why were they a part of the English colonies even though they wanted to migrate/run away from England and the government? Why didn't they just make a new place to live in without an involvement from England? The same question also applies to the Maryland Catholic colony. I'm not from the U.S. so I don't really know the entire history of the continent. My English is also not perfect but I hope you can understand what I'm saying.

5
  • 2
    The WP page en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Plymouth_Colony#Origin gives an approximation to an answer. They had tried life in the Netherlands and seem to have not liked it, evidently identifying themselves as culturally English even though (obviously) not Anglican. Aug 1 at 14:40
  • What is the question??? You seem to be asking "Why did the Pilgrims settle in an English controlled colony?"; if so, please edit your title to clarify.
    – MCW
    Aug 1 at 15:08
  • 1
    Thank you for your question; please consider revising it to be more in line with our community expectations. Like other stacks, we expect questions to provide evidence of prior research. That helps us to understand the question, and avoids our repeating work you've already done. Our help center, and other stacks provide additional resources to assist with revisions. Please revise your question to document your preliminary research.
    – MCW
    Aug 1 at 15:09
  • 1
    @kimchilover The problem with the Netherlands was that they were too tolerant. Yes, they tolerated the (future) Pilgrims, but they tolerated corrupting influences, too, which would corrupt their children.
    – Mary
    Aug 1 at 17:22
  • You may be having a problem with time. E.g. the Pilgrims came to New England and set up their own colony, which was (AFAIK) independent of England. Then some years later the British set up more colonies, and involved themselves. You could compare this to the Mormons moving to places in the West that they hoped would be outside the reach of the US government, only to find that government moving in a few years later.
    – jamesqf
    Aug 1 at 22:04
1

The pilgrims had a particular situation and were in a particular world, compared to today's globalized world:

  • The pilgrims were English. There were often wars between England, the Netherlands, France and Spain: so English pilgrims were not sure of being well received in colonies of those countries.
  • The pilgrims only had a different religion, and they were not prosecuted as political ennemies: this means that as soon as they were far enough for the metropolitan colony of England, at this moment, the English King had no true reason to prosecute them far from England. They were in the East of the New World, a vast colony with few people at the moment (contrary to Canada, India later on) and no crucial resources (contrary to gold/silver in South America for Spain for example). So fleeing there was enough for the pilgrims

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.