In the early medieval period soldiers were provided by feudal dues, but when did a monarch paying for the soldiers in their army instead become the norm? I have a source about Henry VII demanding soldiers be made ready in case of rebellion (Warbeck) but offering payment as compensation for their services. Is this just normal practice by this point, or would a more secure/powerful king have simply demanded the soldiers without offering recompense?

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  • Is this specifically about the situation in England (based on the reference to the Tudors)?
    – Steve Bird
    Jan 20, 2022 at 0:22
  • Apologies @SteveBird, yes England is what I was really asking about, that wasn't totally clear from my question.
    – tom
    Jan 20, 2022 at 0:47
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    Might want to look into the definition of a standing army in England. Also, please provide a more explicit citation for the quotation
    – MCW
    Jan 20, 2022 at 1:04
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    @MCW This is exactly my question though, well sort of anyway. There is no standing army until at least the Civil War to the best of my knowledge, even though there had been garrisons e.g Calais Garrison for specific purposes. I just want to know how typical this situation is - was it just Henry VII as a usurper with a weak claim to the throne who has to pay or is that the norm? Not quite sure what you want in terms of reference for the source - it’s contemporary and all the provenance is there?
    – tom
    Jan 20, 2022 at 20:24


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