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So, here is the deal,

My grandad fled Andalusia in 1934 when he was a little kid with his mother. For what he told me he and his mother they were practically serfs. Working for a rich man, sleeping in the barn and being forbidden to leave the place.

But I cannot get source to validate that they were serfs at this time in Spain. Officially, I know it was forbidden many years before.

So if anyone can tell me a bit more about it, how likely and spread it was, that would be greatly appreciated.

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    It really depends on what you call serf... In your grandad's story, what is unique about working for the rich and paid for peanuts?
    – Greg
    Jul 22, 2022 at 3:27
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    There definitely were serfs. For a very good approach on how this could be, you can watch the movie Los santos inocentes (The Holy Innocents).
    – fedorqui
    Jul 22, 2022 at 5:31
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    Human trafficking and slavery are true even today; While there may not have been legal serfs, I'd be quite surprised if there were not illicit labor practices in 1930's Spain
    – MCW
    Jul 22, 2022 at 7:03

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