It seems to me (maybe I am wrong?!) that the formal attire for men in the West has been uniform (as in "bland", not "military") for at least 100 years.
While moderately evolving in time, at any given moment the men style is fixed: a suite, a collared shirt, and a tie. The only variety are the colors of the shirt and tie (and, possibly, the number of buttons on the suite). Just look at an official political function, and you see men dressed identically, at least compared to the variety of women's styles.
On the other hand, it seems that 400 years ago men were allowed more stylistic variety (at least Dumas seems to spend as much time describing men's attire as women's).
When and Why did the change happen?
Related discussions that contain no relevant information:
- ELI5: Why has the style of male formal attire remained relatively unchanged for the past 150 years, while casual clothes have changed dramatically?
- Why did Men's fashion become plain, colorless and so uniform after 1800?
PS. I want to explicitly exclude from consideration "peacock" events like Oscars.
This question is completely answered by Great Male Renunciation: French revolution and Sans-culottes.