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As I understand it Rommel was executed, or forced to commit suicide (same thing really) because he defied Hitler who ordered him to kill Allied POWs. A nazi war general getting executed because of adhering to the Geneva Accord seems like a rather peculiar piece of history

As I understand invading a country does not equate to war crimes, so how have Rommel's actions in WW2 been perceived post war? Did anything he engaged in meet the immediate post-war standards to be charged with war crimes?

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    There is a wikipedia article about Rommel that seems to contain exactly the information you are looking for. It also contains information on the reason why Rommel was forced to kill himself (which was quite unrelated to the Geneva convention).
    – Jan
    Commented Mar 19 at 15:43
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    Rommel's actions in Rouen during operation Fall Rot in 1940 should count : shelling residential areas, executing Black civilians and French prisoneers from colonial troops, forbidding firemen to intervene in a burning district...
    – Evargalo
    Commented Mar 19 at 16:12

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