I was having a discussion with someone who insisted that one of the major reasons I thought that Augustine objected to Jerome's translation of the Septuagint was completely not true. He argued that the primary reason was more trivial (imo).

I answered this question on Christianity.SE, however, since one on the other members completely disagrees I was hoping for verification or a different opinion. To sum up my answer there if you do not want to read it is that Augustine did not want Jerome to use the Hebrew texts instead of the Greek because there were differences. Jerome argued back that the Hebrew was more reliable to the actual 'ancients.' Augustine came back again saying that the Greek is too wide spread and there may be divisions in the Church if some followed the Hebrew while others followed the Greek because there are significant differences.

My opponent in this argument did not agree with me that Augustine was willing to have Scripture less accurate to the 'ancients' for the sake of church unity.

Is my evaluation reasonably correct or am I wrong, in which case, what was the major objections?

I would think it is on topic according to your faq because it is about the historical argument between two ancient persons who really existed and there is a record of their argument.

  • It isn't entirely off-topic. However, to get a good amount of knowledgable people, I think you might be better off moving this question to the hermeneutics SE site. Its a beta site, so I don't know how good it is, but this is really in their bailiwick.
    – T.E.D.
    Mar 5 '13 at 14:22
  • @T.E.D.: I entirely agree wih you. If you could get this "modded" to the other site, it would help this one.
    – Tom Au
    May 24 '13 at 15:56
  • The related question 'now' has an answer on Hermeneutics. Still interested on a HistorySE answer? Oct 16 '18 at 15:01

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