Were they more often devoted to New Testament subjects or to Old Testament subjects?

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    @Luke: I narrowed it down a bit - is it better now? Apr 29, 2013 at 22:39
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    Any specific area or time period of the Middle Ages? Aside from that it seems better. I'm curious to hear from the downvoters themselves. Downvoting a question that is not obviously spam without leaving a comment to explain is rather rude.
    – Luke_0
    Apr 29, 2013 at 23:04
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    geographic limits, time limits, monasteries, for which estate, in Universities?. There's a lot more specification required. Apr 30, 2013 at 2:37
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    You can't ask an absolute comparative in a thousand year period covering the entirety of europe and a significant part of North Africa and Asia when there isn't sufficient material to cover any specified question. It is a poorly researched question. Apr 30, 2013 at 9:32
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    It has been a while since I last sat through a sermon or considered homiletics, but I believe the question includes a false dichotomy. The sermon isn't constrained to a Testament; it is quite possible to preach a sermon on "how to cook an egg while one handed" (I sat through that sermon). Sermons should be about the Churches relationship with God, which includes both OT & NT.
    – MCW
    Apr 30, 2013 at 11:10

2 Answers 2


There are trivially googleable results, which if consulted, could allow this question to become a question worth answering: http://hcl.harvard.edu/libraries/houghton/collections/early_manuscripts/preaching/


Correct me if I'm wrong, but I don't think that preaching sermons really developed until the Renaissance with Girolamo Savonarola and the Protestant Reformation. Up to that point, I believe that Catholic services consisted exclusively of performing the Seven Sacraments. In Mass, I believe that, generally, only prayers would be said.

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    THat'd be great to know, but do you have a source? I am no expert on this so I can neither correct you nor aseent to your stetement. +1 anyway for the angle May 2, 2013 at 6:10

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