The main language in the Middle East is Arabic, however English and French considered as a secondary language. Especially in Algeria, Morocco and Lebanon (there are other countries..) people still use French daily and as a secondary language.

The main question is: When the Ottoman Empire 'conquered' several countries why didn't they force use of their language? The occupation period was long enough, comparable to English and French occupation.

Was the Ottoman colonization different in this relation from French? Or the territory was in some way different than other African territories?