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6 of 16 removed several un needed lines and made the question flow better. Also, I fixed grammer in the title. I hope I did not sabotage the intent though.

Why did the the East-Pakistani people opposed Urdu as their National Language while the Indian people accepted Hindi as their National Language?

In 1947, Both India and Pakistan were given independence from Britain. India was able to establish Hindi as it's national language with minimal problems. Pakistan on the other hand, was created with mutual understanding between East and West, (Muhammad Ali Jinnah was from West Pakistan and Sir Nawab Salimullah, the founder of Muslim League was from East Pakistan). However, in 1952, when Pakistan declared Urdu it's national language, a language mainly used by the people of West Pakistan, it was hugely opposed by the people of East Pakistan, who spoke Bengali.

My question is, why did the people of East Pakistan decided to revolt so early while Indian people successfully embraced Hindi? Was it Indian conspiracy to agitate the people of East Pakistan or was it the East Pakistani population failing to understand the value of keeping the country united?