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Why did the the East-Pakistanis oppose Urdu as their national language while Indians accepted Hindi as theirs?

In 1947, Both India and Pakistan were given independence from Britain. India was able to establish Hindi as its national language with minimal problems. Pakistan on the other hand, was created with mutual understanding between East and West, (Muhammad Ali Jinnah was from West Pakistan and Sir Nawab Salimullah, the founder of Muslim League was from East Pakistan). However, in 1952, when Pakistan declared Urdu its national language, a language mainly used by the people of West Pakistan, it was hugely opposed by the people of East Pakistan, who spoke Bengali.

My question is, why did the people of East Pakistan decide to revolt so early while Indian people successfully embraced Hindi? Was it an Indian conspiracy to agitate the people of East Pakistan or was it the East Pakistani population failing to understand the value of keeping the country united?

Please just be confined with the "Language Movement" of 1952, not the "Liberation War" of 1971. If we can find the cause of "Language Movement", the cause of "Liberation War" is just insignificant. "Language Movement" was the very start of the revolt and "Liberation War" is the end, if we can know the start, end becomes crystal clear anyway.