Karl Marx, writing for the Herald Tribune in 1854:
the sedentary population of Jerusalem numbers about 15,500 souls, of whom 4,000 are Mussulmans and 8,000 Jews. The Mussulmans, forming about a fourth part of the whole, and consisting of Turks, Arabs and Moors, are, of course, the masters in every respect, as they are in no way affected with the weakness of their Government at Constantinople.
I understand Marx's usage of "Moors" refers either to people from northwest Africa, or to people with very dark skin generally.
- Is this correct?
- Is Marx's usage anachronistic? In other words, had the term fallen out of use by 1854?
