The main language in the Middle East is Arabic, however English and French considered as a secondary language.
Especially in Algeria, Morocco and Lebanon (there are other countries..) people still use French daily and as a secondary language.

The main question is: **When the Ottoman Empire 'conquered' several countries why didn't they force use of their language? The occupation period was long enough, comparable to English and French occupation.**

Was the Ottoman colonization different in this relation from French? Or the territory was in some way different than other African territories?