Pakistan and India both got independence from the Britain in the year of 1947.

India declared Hindi as its National Language and was able to establish it with almost no or minimal problem.

On the other hand, Pakistan was created with mutual understanding between East and West ([Muhammad Ali Jinnah][1] was from West Pakistan and [Sir Nawab Salimullah][2], the founder of Muslim League was from East Pakistan). But when, in 1952, Pakistan declared Urdu as the National Language of Pakistan, it was opposed with huge movement.

My question is, why the people of East Pakistan decided to revolt so early while Indian people successfully embraced Hindi?

Was it Indian conspiracy or docile Indian people or Ignorance of East Pakistani population?